Đề thi thử ISTQB 1

Question 1 What is a key characteristic of specification-based testing techniques?

a. Tests are derived from information about how the software is constructed.
b. Tests are derived from models (formal or informal) that specify the problem to be solved by the software or its components.
c. Tests are derived based on the skills and experience of the tester.
d. Tests are derived from the extent of the coverage of structural elements of the system or components.

Question 2 An exhaustive test suite would include:

a. All combinations of input values and preconditions.
b. All combinations of input values and output values.
c. All pairs of input value and preconditions.
d. All states and state transitions.

Question 3 Which statement about testing is true?

a. Testing is started as early as possible in the life cycle.
b. Testing is started after the code is written so that we have a system with which to work.
c. Testing is most economically done at the end of the life cycle.
d. Testing can only be done by an independent test team.

Question 4 For a test procedure that is checking modifications of customers on a database,which two steps below would be the lowest priority if we didn't have time to execute all of thesteps?

1 Open database and confirm existing customer
2 Change customer's marital status from single to married
3 Change customer's street name from Parks Road to Park Road
4 Change customer's credit limit from 500 to 7505 Replace customer's first name with exactlythe same first name
6 Close the customer record and close the database
a. Tests 1 and 4
b. Tests 2 and 3
c. Tests 5 and 6
d. Tests 3 and 5

Question 5 Consider the following list of either product or project risks

I An incorrect calculation of fees might shortchange the organization.
II A vendor might fail to deliver a system component on time.
IIIA defect might allow hackers to gain administrative privileges.
IVA skills gap might occur in a new technology used in the system.
V A defect-prioritization process might overload the development team.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. I is primarily a product risk and II, III, IV and V are primarily project risks.
b. II and V are primarily product risks and I,III and V are primarily project risks.
c. I and III are primarily product risks, while II, IV and V are primarily project risks.
d. Ill and V are primarily product risks, while I, II and IV are primarily project risks.

Question 6 Consider the following statements about regression tests:

I They may usefully be automated if they are well designed.
II They are the same as confirmation tests (re-tests).
III They are a way to reduce the risk of a change having an adverse effect elsewhere in the system.
IV They are only effective if automated.
Which pair of statements is true?
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II and III
d. II and IV

Question 7 Which of the following could be used to assess the coverage achieved for structure-based(white-box) test techniques?

V Decision outcomes exercised
W Partitions exercised
X Boundaries exercised
Y Conditions or multiple conditions exercised
Z Statements exercised
a. V, W or Y
b. W, X or Y
c. V, Y or Z
d. W, X or Z

Question 8 Review the following portion of an incident report.

1 I place any item in the shopping cart.
2 I place any other (different) item in the shopping cart.
3 I remove the first item from the shopping cart, but leave the second item in the cart.
4 I click the < Checkout > button.
5 I expect the system to display the first checkout screen. Instead, it gives the pop-up error message, 'Noitems in shopping cart. Click <Okay> to continue shopping.'
6 I click < Okay >.
7 I expect the system to return to the main window to allow me to continue adding and removing itemsfrom the cart. Instead, the browser terminates.
8 The failure described in steps 5 and 7 occurred in each of three attempts to perform steps 1,2,3,4 and 6.
Assume that no other narrative information is included in the report. Which of the following importantaspects of a good incident report is missing from this incident report?
a. The steps to reproduce the failure.
b. The summary.
c. The check for intermittence.
d. The use of an objective tone.

Question 9 Which of the following are benefitsand which are risks of using tools to support testing?

1 Over-reliance on the tool
2 Greater consistency and repeatability
3 Objective assessment
4 Unrealistic expectations
5 Underestimating the effort required to maintain the test assets generated by the tool
6 Ease of access to information about tests or testing
7 Repetitive work is reduced
a. Benefits: 3,4,6 and 7. Risks: 1,2 and 5
b. Benefits: 1,2,3 and 7, Risks: 4,5 and 6
c. Benefits: 2,3,6 and 7. Risks: 1,4 and 5
d. Benefits: 2,3,5and 6. Risks: 1,4 and 7

Question 10 Which of the following encourages objective testing?

a. Unit testing
b. System testing
c. Independent testing
d. Destructive testing

Question 11 Of the following statements about reviews of specifications, which statement is true?

a. Reviews are not generally cost effective as the meetings are time consuming and require preparationand follow up.
b. There is no need to prepare for or follow up on reviews.
c. Reviews must be controlled by the author.
d. Reviews are a cost effective early static test on the system.

Question 12 Consider the following list of test process activities:

I Analysis and design
II Test closure activities
III Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
IV Planning and contro
lV Implementation and executionWhich of the following places these in their logical sequence?
a. I, II, III, IV and V
b. IV, I, V, III and II.
c. IV, I, V,II and III.
d. I, IV, V HI and II.

Question 13 Test objectives vary between projects and so must be stated in the test plan. Whichone of the following test objectives might conflict with the proper tester mindset?

a. Show that the system works before we ship it.
b. Find as many defects as possible.
c. Reduce the overall level of product risk.
d. Prevent defects through early involvement.

Question 14 Which test activities are supported by test data preparation tools?

a. Test management and control
b. Test specification and design
c. Test execution and logging
d. Performance and monitoring

Question 15 If you are flying with an economy ticket, there is a possibility that you may getupgraded to business class, especially if you hold a gold card in the airline's frequent flyerprogram. If you don't hold a gold card, there is a possibility that you will get 'bumped' off theflight if it is full and you checking in late. This is shown in Figure 7.1. Note that each box (i.e.statement) has been numbered.

Three tests have already been run:
Test 1: Gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class
Test 2: Non-gold card holder who stays in economy
Test 3: A person who is bumped from the flightWhat additional tests would be needed to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. A gold card holder who stays in economy and a non-gold card holder who gets upgraded to business class.
b. A gold card holder and a non-gold card holder who are both upgraded to business class.
c. A gold card holder and a non-gold card holder who both stay in economy class.
d. A gold card holder who is upgraded to business class and a non-gold card holder whostays ineconomy class.

Question 16 Consider the following types of tools:

V Test management tools
W Static analysis tools
X Modeling tools
Y Dynamic analysis tools
Z Performance testing tools
Which of the following of these tools is most likely to be used by developers?
a. W, X and Y
b. V, Y and Z
c. V, W and Z
d. X,Y and Z

Question 17 What is a test condition?

a. An input, expected outcome, precondition and postcondition
b. The steps to be taken to get the system to a given point
c. Something that can be tested
d. A specific state of the software, e.g. before a test can be run

Question 18 Which of the following is the most important difference between the metrics-basedapproach and the expert-based approach to test estimation?

a. The metrics-basedapproach is more accurate than the expert-based approach.
b. The metrics-based approach uses calculations from historical data while the expert-based approach relies on team wisdom.
c. The metrics-based approach can be used to verify an estimate created using the expert-basedapproach, but not vice versa.
d. The expert-based approach takes longer than the metrics-based approach.

Question 19 If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched on. When theTemperaturereaches 21 degrees, the heating is switched off. What is the minimum set of testinput values to cover all valid equivalence partitions?

a. 15,19 and 25 degrees
b. 17,18,20 and 21 degrees
c. 18,20 and 22 degrees
d. 16 and 26 degrees

Question 20 Which of these statements about functional testing is true?

a. Structural testing is more important than functional testing as it addresses the code.
b. Functional testing is useful throughout the life cycle and can be applied by business analysts, testers, developers and users.
c. Functional testing is more powerful than static testing as you actually run the system and see whathappens.
d. Inspection is a form of functional testing.


Question 21 What is the purpose of confirmation testing?

a. To confirm the users' confidence that the system will meet their business needs.
b. To confirm that a defect has been fixed correctly.
c. To confirm that no unexpected changes have been introduced or uncovered as a result of changesmade.
d. To confirm that the detailed logic of a component conforms to its specification.


Question 22 Which success factors are required for good tool support within an organization?

a. Acquiring the best tool and ensuring that all testers use it.
b. Adapting processes to fit with the use of the tool and monitoring tool use and benefits.
c. Setting ambitious objectives for tool benefits and aggressive deadlines for achieving them.
d. Adopting practices from other successful organizations and ensuring that initial ways of using thetool are maintained.

Question 23 Which of the following best describes integration testing?

a. Testing performed to expose faults in the interfaces and in the interaction between integrated components.
b. Testing to verify that a component is ready for integration.
c. Testing to verify that the test environment can be integrated with the product.
d. Integration of automated software test suites with the product.

Question 24 According to the ISTQB Glossary, debugging:

a. Is part of the fundamental testing process.
b. Includes the repair of the cause of a failure.
c. Involves intentionally adding known defects.
d. Follows the steps of a test procedure.

Question 25 Which of the following could be a root cause of a defectin financial software inwhich an incorrect interest rate is calculated?

a. Insufficient funds were available to pay the interest rate calculated.
b. Insufficient calculations of compound interest were included.
c. Insufficient training was given to the developers concerning compound interest calculation rules.
d. Inaccurate calculators were used to calculate the expected results.


Question 26 Assume postal rates for 'light letters' are:
$0.25 up to 10 grams; $0.35 up to 50 grams; $0.45 up to 75 grams; $0.55 up to 100 grams.

Which test inputs (in grams) would be selected using boundary value analysis?
a. 0,9,19,49,50,74,75, 99,100
b. 10,50,75,100,250,1000
c. 0,1,10,11,50,51,75,76,100,101
d. 25,26,35,36,45,46,55,56

Question 27 Consider the following decision table.

Given this decision table, what is the expected result for the following test cases?
TCI: A 26-year-old on business but with violations or accidents on his driving record
TC2: A 62-year-old tourist
a. TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with premium charge.
b. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
c. TCI: Don't supply car; TC2: Supply car with no premium charge.
d. TCI: Supply car with premium charge; TC2: Don't supply car.with a clean driving record

Question 28. What is exploratory testing?

a. The process of anticipating or guessing where defects might occur.
b. A systematic approach to identifying specific equivalent classes of input.
c. The testing carried out by a chartered engineer.
d. Concurrent test design, test execution, test logging and learning.

Question 29. What does it mean if a set of tests has achieved 90% statement coverage?

a. 9 out of 10 decision outcomes have been exercised by this set of tests.
b. 9 out of 10 statements have been exercised by this set of tests.
c. 9 out of 10 tests have been run on this set of software.
d. 9 out of 10 requirements statements about the software are correct.

Question 30. A test plan is written specifically to describe a level of testing where the primarygoal is establishing confidence in the system. Which of the following is a likely name for thisdocument?

a. Master test plan
b. System test plan
c. Acceptance test plan
d. Project plan

Question 31 Why is testing necessary?

n.Because software is likely to have faults
o.To learn about the reliability of the software
p.To fill the time between delivery of the software and the release date
q.To prove that the software has no faults
r.Because testing is included in the project plan
s.Because failures can be very expensive
t.To avoid being sued by customers
u.To stay in business
a.n, o, s,t,u are true, p,q,r are false
b.n, o are true, s,t,u, p,q,r are false
c.n, p,s,t,u are true, o,q,r are false
d.n,o,s are true, p,q,r,t,u are faules

Question 32 What is the best description of static analysis?

a. The analysis of batch programs
b. The reviewing of test plans
c. The analysis of program code or other software artifacts
d. The use of black-box testing

Question 33 System test execution on a project is planned for eight weeks. After a week of testing, atester suggests that the test objective stated in the test plan of 'finding as many defects as possible duringsystem test' might be more closely met by redirecting the test effort according to which test principle?

a. Impossibility of exhaustive testing.
b. Importance of early testing.
c. The absence of errors fallacy.
d. Defect clustering.

Question 34 Consider the following activities that might relate to configuration management:

I Identify and document the characteristics of a test item
II Control changes to the characteristics of a test item
III Check a test item for defects introduced by a change
IV Record and report the status of changes to test items
V Confirm that changes to a test item fixed a defect.
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Only I is a configuration management task.
b. All are configuration management tasks.
c. I, II and III are configuration management tasks.
d. I, II and IV are configuration management tasks.

Question 35 Consider the following state transition diagram.  

Given this diagram, which test case below covers every valid transition?
a. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-ES
b. SS-S1-S2-S3-S4-S3-S4-ES
c. SS-S1-S2-S4-S1-S3-S4-S1-S3-ES
d. SS-S1-S4-S2-S1-S3-ES


Question 36 A test plan included the following clauses among the exit criteria:

• System test shall continue until all significant product risks have been covered to the extent specified inthe product risk analysis document.
• System test shall continue until no must-fix defects remain against any significant product risksspecified in the product risk analysis document
During test execution, the test team detects 430 must-fix defects prior to release and all must-fix defectsare resolved. After release, the customers find 212 new defects, none of which were detected duringtesting. This means that only 67% of the important defects were found prior to release, a percentagewhich is well below average in your industry. You are asked to find the root cause for the high number offield failures. Consider the following list of explanations:

I Not all the tests planned for the significant product risks were executed.
II The organization has unrealistic expectations of the percentage of defects that testing can find.
III A version-control issue has resulted in the release of a version of the software that was used duringearly testing.
IV The product risk analysis failed to identify all the important risks from a customer point of view.
V The product risk analysis was not updated during the project as new information became available.Which of the following statements indicate which explanations are possible root causes?

a. II,IIIand IV are possible explanations, but I and V are not possible.
b. All five are possible explanations.
c. I, IV and V are possible explanations, but II and III are not possible.
d. Ill, IV and V are possible explanations, but I and II are not possible.

Question 37 What is the most important factor for successful performance of reviews?

a. A separate scribe during the logging meeting
b. Trained participants and review leaders
c. The availability of tools to support the review process
d. A reviewed test plan

Question 38 Consider the following statements about maintenance testing:

I It requires both re-test and regression test and may require additional new tests.
II It is testing to show how easy it will be to maintain the system.
III It is difficult to scope and therefore needs careful risk and impact analysis.
IV It need not be done for emergency bug fixes. Which of the statements are true?

a. I and III
b. I and IV
c. II and III
d. II and IV

Question 39 Which two specification-based testing techniques are most closely related to eachother?

a. Decision tables and state transition testing
b. Equivalence partitioning and state transition testing
c. Decision tables and boundary value analysis
d. Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis

Question 40 Which of the following is an advantage of independent testing?

a. Independent testers don't have to spend time communicating with the project team.
b. Programmers can stop worrying about the quality of their work and focus on producing more code.
c. The others on a project can pressure the independent testers to accelerate testing at the end of theschedule.
d. Independent testers sometimes question the assumptions behind requirements, designs andimplementations.